Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 16:04
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Apple drops a spot on 2025 Fortune 500 list - 9to5Mac
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Why does Rahul Gandhi have so many haters?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.